May 2021 3 127 Report
Nietzsche?

Clearly Nietzsche believed that when a philosopher wants more than just philosophical elitists to understand thier writing like the common folks, it is most important to simplify the words used, which is dandy. Most of the english translations of his works seem to abandon that principle. Do the translators not understand, or was he a hypocrite? I just don't understand. Any one have a good explaination?

Update:

Thanks for the opinions! I have not read that specific translation, but I probably will now. I was not trying to say that HE wrote for the common folk, I was saying that he critized other philosophers that wrote for the common folk, but does blatently say that his own writing was easy to read.


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